BPAS' research indicates that some 26% of women having an abortion at BPAS were using the contraceptive pill (if I have interpreted the data in their press release correctly). With "typical use", the research suggests that 9% of women using the contraceptive pill would be expected to conceive.
BPAS research indicates that some 35% of women having an abortion at BPAS were using condoms. With "typical use" they suggest that 12% of such women would conceive.
Am I correct in thinking that the women conceiving when these contraceptive methods are used are disproportionately highly represented in the population of those women seeking abortion, compared to the full population of those using these methods?
The Chief Executive of BPAS comments at the end of the news release:
Contraception fails and sometimes we fail to use it properly...
Ultimately women cannot control their fertility through contraception alone, and need accessible abortion services as a back-up for when their contraception lets them down.If this statement represents the basis on which BPAS provides abortion to its clients, one wonders whether that basis is lawful (though it should be noted that, elsewhere on their website, BPAS qualify the possibility of abortion for a woman by the words "if you can legally do so"). I am not aware that contraceptive failure is a legal grounds for an abortion.
H/T e-LIFE newsletter.
In other news: Caroline Farrow has an analysis of newspaper reports today of undercover investigations at crisis pregnancy centres: Crisis pregnancy centres "scandal". Christian Medical Comment has coverage here: Behind the headlines: information and misinformation in pregnancy counselling.